My wife and I have been carefully charting temperature and mucus for the past nine months since her cycles returned post-partum.
This was our eighth child and we are now trying to postpone pregnancy for a while.
My wife’s temperature sign has generally been more helpful than the mucus sign, as she has tacky mucus pretty much all the time, and sometimes the only indicator of any change is some thicker, cloudier mucus. This month, however, she had 24 hours with the classic egg white mucus, followed by ovulation pain in the middle of the night. Then her mucus went tacky for a day, and then dry again. It is somewhat unusual for her to record “dry”. So we’re two days since the ovulation pain, and two days into drying up, but as yet, there has been no temperature rise. In fact, her temps have been somewhat higher than normal all through this cycle so far.
She has a slight cold, but otherwise we’ve had no unusual stress in our lives, and her sleeping pattern has been normal.
I should probably also mention that my wife is 42, that we have practiced NFP for ten years (interrupted by five pregnancies), and that since we began charting again, the length of her cycles has gradually gone down from 38 to about 30 days.
So I have two questions:
1. What might account for the lack of thermal shift?
2. Can we rely on the combination of dry mucus and ovulation pain to determine the start of post-ovulatory infertility, ignoring the temps, or should we wait for a clear shift?
Normally, we would steadfastly wait for a temperature shift, BUT Lent is nearly upon us and every Lent we abstain from marital relations entirely. Waiting much longer now could effectively add two weeks to Lent!
Thanks for any help you can provide.