I really need your help, I keep finding contradicting information on the matter everywhere I look.
If my wife and I plan on having normal intercouse, is it morally acceptable for me (not her) to bring her to orgasm manually or orally immediately before intercourse? How about manually stimulating during the actual intercourse to help us both climax? And if she can’t reach orgasm during normal intercourse, is it permissible for me, to help her reach it either manually or orally right after I am done? Basically what I need to know is, if female orgasm is morally acceptable surrounding normal intercourse or does it definitively have to happen during intercourse alone.
Bern